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Original question & working

A factorial tail after reindexing · source reference

[modified 2024/EJC/Prelim/I/6] · Question pp. 2 · Working pp. 7

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Printed question

It is given that ∑r=1nr2+3r+1(r+2)!=32−1(n+1)!−1(n+2)!\sum_{r=1}^n\frac{r^2+3r+1}{(r+2)!}=\frac32-\frac1{(n+1)!}-\frac1{(n+2)!}.

(a) Explain why its infinite series converges, and state the limit. [2]

(b) Find exactly ∑r=6∞r2−r−1r!\sum_{r=6}^{\infty}\frac{r^2-r-1}{r!}. [3]

Printed working

(a) As n→∞n\to\infty, 1(n+1)!→0,1(n+2)!→0\frac1{(n+1)!}\to0,\frac1{(n+2)!}\to0. Thus

∑r=1∞r2+3r+1(r+2)!=32−0−0=32.\sum_{r=1}^{\infty}\frac{r^2+3r+1}{(r+2)!}=\frac32-0-0=\frac32.

Since it is finite, the series converges.

(b) Replace rr by r+2r+2:

∑r=6∞r2−r−1r!=∑r=4∞(r+2)2−(r+2)−1(r+2)!=∑r=4∞r2+3r+1(r+2)!=∑r=1∞r2+3r+1(r+2)!−∑r=13r2+3r+1(r+2)!=32−(32−14!−15!)=120.\begin{aligned}\sum_{r=6}^{\infty}\frac{r^2-r-1}{r!}&=\sum_{r=4}^{\infty}\frac{(r+2)^2-(r+2)-1}{(r+2)!}\\&=\sum_{r=4}^{\infty}\frac{r^2+3r+1}{(r+2)!}\\&=\sum_{r=1}^{\infty}\frac{r^2+3r+1}{(r+2)!}-\sum_{r=1}^3\frac{r^2+3r+1}{(r+2)!}\\&=\frac32-\left(\frac32-\frac1{4!}-\frac1{5!}\right)=\frac1{20}.\end{aligned}

Printed answer key

(a) 3/23/2; (b) 1/201/20

Mathematical review and qualifications

(a) Both factorial reciprocals tend to zero, so the partial sums tend to the finite value 3/23/2.

(b) With r=s+2r=s+2, (r2−r−1)/r!=(s2+3s+1)/(s+2)!(r^2-r-1)/r!=(s^2+3s+1)/(s+2)!. Thus the sum is S∞−S3=3/2−[3/2−1/4!−1/5!]=1/24+1/120=1/20S_\infty-S_3=3/2-[3/2-1/4!-1/5!]=1/24+1/120=1/20.

Provenance

2025 TJC H2 Math (9758) JC2 MSM: SIGMA NOTATION. [modified 2024/EJC/Prelim/I/6] Question PDF pages 2; solution PDF pages 7. The original files remain private QA records outside this native content.